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based on the rules for longer term multiple entry schengen visas, which are that

"Multiple-entry visas with a long validity shall be issued for the following validity periods, unless the validity of the visa would exceed that of the travel document:

(a) for a validity period of one year, provided that the applicant has obtained and lawfully used three visas within the previous two years;"

Does anyone know whether:

Do the 'lawfully used three visas' have be issued from the same country? For example, I've had one visa from France, one from Italy, one from Spain. Would those three together count?

Do the three visas need to be of the same type? For example, one visa I had is just a short stay tourist visa and the other is also a short stay tourist visa but I applied on the basis that I am married to an EU citizen (I am an non-EU national).

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  • As a spouse of an EU citizen you recieved only a single entry visa? Otherwise it doesn't matter which country issued the previous visas.
    – Mark Johnson
    Commented Dec 1, 2022 at 13:48
  • The EU spouse visa was multiple entry, but its only valid for 30 days of travel within a 90 day period
    – Gussss
    Commented Dec 1, 2022 at 14:10
  • You mean 90 days in every 180 day period? This only applies when you are not travelling or joining your EU citizen spouse.
    – Mark Johnson
    Commented Dec 1, 2022 at 14:18
  • No it's the visa where we need to travel together (EU national with EU spouse).
    – Gussss
    Commented Dec 1, 2022 at 14:21
  • 1
    Post covid, it seems these guidelines/rules have gone for a toss. I know numerous people who despite having 4-5 visas in the previous two years, were issued visas ranging from 10-30 days and I know one person who applied for a Schengen visa for the first time in their life (for a 15 day trip) and received a 5 years multiple entry visa.
    – Thomas Cruise
    Commented Dec 1, 2022 at 23:01

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