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Mar 16, 2017 at 18:22 comment added phoog @Laurent that is also true: even a single-entry visa issued for business purposes does not preclude tourism that is incidental to the business trip. And, because Schengen doesn't actually classify visas as business or pleasure, it's also allowed for someone to plan a tourist trip and then later schedule a business meeting during that trip. You are right that this "could be an issue," because it might appear that the original application was disingenuous, but if the traveler can show that subsequent meeting arose independently then it should be allowed.
Mar 16, 2017 at 15:07 comment added Laurent To be honest, using a business visa to enjoy a vacation over the week end after your working week isn't an issue... It is rather the opposite that could be an issue (tourist visa used to work).
Mar 16, 2017 at 15:03 comment added Tor-Einar Jarnbjo @phoog You are completely right. What I said only applies to single-entry visas.
Mar 16, 2017 at 14:47 comment added phoog @Tor-EinarJarnbjo That's misleading. For example, a multiple-entry business visa issued for frequent visits to a company in one place may be used for a beach vacation to another place. Perhaps a better way to say it would be "as long as no immigration officer thinks that you are using your visa fraudulently or committed fraud in your application."
Mar 16, 2017 at 14:23 comment added Giorgio @Tor-EinarJarnbjo you should make that an answer, with your usual clarifications.
Mar 16, 2017 at 9:50 comment added Tor-Einar Jarnbjo It is also only correct as long as no immigration officers thinks that you are trying to use your Schengen visa for a different purpose from which it was issued for.
Mar 16, 2017 at 8:53 comment added RedBaron This is correct as long as the valid for: doesn't name only Germany (extremely rare but question does not clarify this)
Mar 16, 2017 at 8:44 history answered Laurent CC BY-SA 3.0