Timeline for Are there Schengen countries through which it's easier to get a visa than others?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
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| Mar 16, 2017 at 15:48 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://meta.travel.stackexchange.com/ with https://travel.meta.stackexchange.com/
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| Jun 12, 2016 at 22:24 | vote | accept | Tim Malone | ||
| Jun 11, 2016 at 20:24 | comment | added | Relaxed | @HenningMakholm Adding a day here and removing one there can also be perfectly reasonable, either way, it's a change of itinerary. But the question is fine now. | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 20:14 | comment | added | hmakholm left over Monica | @Relaxed: However, if one does have plans where a main destination cannot be determined, then there will be at least some freedom to choose the member state of entry. Essentially no matter where you're coming from and going to, choosing one airline over another would give you at least 4 or 5 states of entry to choose between, all on perfectly reasonable itineraries. | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 18:00 | history | edited | Zach Lipton | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 66 characters in body
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| Jun 11, 2016 at 13:41 | answer | added | Relaxed | timeline score: 6 | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 13:12 | comment | added | Relaxed | At the same time, the premise of the question is still wrong, there is no situation in which you are free to choose where to apply. The only way to do that is by adjusting your itinerary. | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 13:08 | comment | added | Relaxed | @o.m. The truth is that I have seen many people, even consular staff, who seem to think that's the rule. But the actual text of the visa code is crytal clear, there is no reason a transit would not count and there is no notion of a first or second tier of destinations. | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 12:42 | comment | added | hmakholm left over Monica | @o.m., Yes. The words of the Visa Code are "the Member State whose external border the applicant intends to cross in order to enter the territory of the Member States". | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 9:25 | comment | added | Willeke♦ | If you are still in the planning stage, you can make the country where you intent to apply for the visa the first or the longest stay country and that is completely within the rules. | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 7:40 | comment | added | o.m. | @phoog, does that include transit? | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 6:13 | comment | added | phoog | @o.m. actually the rule is that if there is no main destination you apply to the country of entry. | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 6:04 | comment | added | o.m. | I believe that the premise of your question is wrong. If there is no main destination and several countries are roughly equal on your itinerary, you apply to the first of those. If you misrepresent the main destination, you have to twist your listed itinerary, and that might make the application seem incoherent. | |
| Jun 11, 2016 at 4:50 | history | asked | Tim Malone | CC BY-SA 3.0 |