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Sep 22, 2023 at 12:46 comment added Tor-Einar Jarnbjo I would not find it unlikely that even at a state level, there are still countries in the poorer parts of Europe, where public transport is more used than private cars (measured in passenger kms). I have not been able to find comprehensive statistics, but e.g. in Turkey, 2002, 49% of passenger transport was made by car and 51% by public transport, while Bulgaria and Hungary had a roughly 60/40 split. Car usage has increased over the last few decades, but possible candidates for low car usage are still e.g. Ukraine, Moldova, Georgia, Belarus or many of the Balkan states.
Sep 22, 2023 at 11:28 comment added jcaron At the state level (with exceptions for micro-nations such as Vatican City), I don't think there are any countries where total passenger.kilometres are higher for public transport than for cars. At the city level, though, this is quite different, as illustrated in the answers below (and in the document you linked in your question), though that introduces questions about the definition of the "city" and what trips are counted or not.
Sep 22, 2023 at 10:34 comment added Jsl By the way, you should be skeptical about any statistics about public transport use from the last few years, since fear of Covid and the inconvenience of mask mandates temporarily drove many people out of public transport. The situation is returning to normal but it will take some time before the statistics start to reflect it.
Sep 22, 2023 at 7:55 answer added Johnnyjanko timeline score: 7
Sep 22, 2023 at 7:17 comment added Giacomo Catenazzi I think it is true on most of the cities (commuters). Consider that Europe has real cities (US tends to have inhabitants in suburbs). Driving license often only after 18 years (and it is not expected to have the "driving mother", so you get many additional people using public transports. The cities are different: do not look just one item (which it is an effect, not a cause).
Sep 22, 2023 at 5:46 comment added Relaxed Note that looking at aggregate behaviour in some area is a misleading way to find out whether poor people drive more than richer people (it's a variant of the “ecological fallacy”). That will be an issue no matter how you define “poor” or “popular”.
Sep 22, 2023 at 1:53 history edited Franck Dernoncourt
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Sep 30, 2023 at 3:08
Sep 22, 2023 at 0:39 answer added Franck Dernoncourt timeline score: 5
Sep 21, 2023 at 21:59 comment added phoog Can you quote or summarize the information you're linking to? Also how do you define "more popular"? Total distance traveled? Opinion polls? Something else?
S Sep 21, 2023 at 21:47 review First questions
Sep 22, 2023 at 0:38
S Sep 21, 2023 at 21:47 history asked This is the Dave I know CC BY-SA 4.0