As I understand it, roaming is the part of a phone connection which uses the infrastructure of a non-domestic network (is that correct?). Lets say my mobile carrier is German, and I have a tariff with unlimited domestic calls. We also assume the newly abolished roaming charges. Are my interpretations in the following scenarios correct?
I call a French number located outside of Germany from Germany. In this case I pay whatever the price my operator puts on international calls to France, as long as it's located within the EU(or do I pay different charges depending on his location?). If he were lets say in India, I'd pay for a call to India (or would I pay for a call to France and he would pay the rest? I'm not sure.).
I call a French number located within Germany from Germany. I still pay for a call to France since the connection first goes to his operator in France, who then serves him with my call.
I call the same French number located anywhere within the EU, from within the EU but outside of Germany. Now I don't pay anything since all calls from outside your EU home-country to another EU country are considered roaming (which paradoxically makes my telephony cheaper outside then within Germany. What is the logic behind this?).
I call a German number located outside of Germany, but within the EU, from Germany. I don't pay anything since my operator is serving me all the way, in contrast to 1. (Before the new regulation I would pay for using non-domestic infrastructure).