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I have a 1 year multi-entry Schengen visa (issued by Spain). This visa expires in March 2017 and I want to ask for a new one from March 2017 onwards. In the past year, I spent 20 days in Spain and 10 days in Germany. Now I still have 90 days to spend in this period and I want to spend those 90 days in Netherlands.

Questions:

  1. 1) Is it a problem if I come 90 days to Netherlands when I have a Spain issued Schengenvisa which presumes that I should spend the most time in Spain over the course of the 1 year? Meaning at the border can they refuse me?

  2. 2) When I have this record in March 2017 when my visa expires, Spain 20 days, Germany 10 days, Netherlands 90 days, and I apply for a new Schengen visa with Spain, will they refuse me because I showed that I spent more time on my visa OUTSIDE Spain, namely Netherlands, so is it a violation and enough reason not to trust me and not give me a Schengen visa anymore never ever?

  3. Is it not so that when you apply for a C visa, Schengen, and you travel for example from 1 April to 15 April to Italy for example, that the Schengen visa is always given for a minimum of 90 days consecutive time, so NOT for specifically my travel dates 1 April to 15 April???

closed as too broad by pnuts, JonathanReez, Ali Awan, CGCampbell, Giorgio Nov 13 '16 at 15:06

Please edit the question to limit it to a specific problem with enough detail to identify an adequate answer. Avoid asking multiple distinct questions at once. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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    The answer to all three questions is no, but they might refuse a new visa application if you don't have a clear premise for your application that justifies applying to the country where you've applied. In other words, if your next definite trip is to Italy, and you have no plans to go to Spain, the Spanish consulate will refuse the application and tell you to apply to Italy. – phoog Nov 13 '16 at 14:11
  • @phoog - thanks phoog - the funny thing about this Schengen visa is also that I can fly to Dusseldorf airport and then take a 2 hour drive to Netherlands, Belgium or France and stay in either of those countries for x days, so who and how to say where I spent my time??? So how I spend my time now (meaning I spent more time over the 1 year outside Spain than in Spain) on current Schengen visa will not have any consequences at all for my new application provided I show my first travel to be to Spain when I apply for a "Spanish" Schengen visa? – user46068 Nov 13 '16 at 14:37
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    Regarding 3, no, Hungary gave me visa for EXACT dates, Spain rounded to next 10, Germany to next 5. – DavChana Nov 13 '16 at 14:39
  • @DavChana - what you mean "rounded to"? – user46068 Nov 13 '16 at 14:42
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    @raulbaros I mean asked HUN 9, got 9, SPAIN asked 11, got 20 days, Germany asked 13, got 15 days.. – DavChana Nov 13 '16 at 15:10
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The purpose of the Schengen treaty is to remove internal border controls for EU citizens. They already had the right to cross those borders, Schengen just reduced the probability of being delayed by a check. Obviously open borders must be open for citizens and non-citizens alike, or the citizens would have to stop at the border and show that they are citizens and thus entitled to cross.

On the other hand, Schengen visa may put some restrictions on the holder. Most importantly, visitors may have to provide a premise and an itinerary for the trip and they are expected to tell the truth. When people apply for a Schengen visa, the officials try to judge if the applicant can be trusted to follow the terms of the visa.

Yes, you can easily cross from Spain to the Netherlands and spend more time there than in Spain. If you happen to get caught, e.g. because you're involved in a traffic accident and somebody wants to see your papers, you have a problem. Not so much because you crossed that border, but because you lied about the premise of your trip.

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    On the other hand, if the traveler asks for a visa for a three-week trip to Spain, and Spain grants a 1-year multiple-entry visa, and the traveler then uses the visa for a subsequent three-month trip to the Netherlands (which seems to be the case here), then there is no problem whatsoever (provided of course that the traveler complies with the 90/180 rule). – phoog Nov 13 '16 at 17:01
  • @phoog - yes, thats exactly the case as you mentioned. I appreciate that it is no problem whatsoever, but even to me it strikes as a "hmmmmm" situation, so I just dont want it to have any consequences for my future Schengen visa applications. – user46068 Nov 13 '16 at 17:08
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    @raulbaros your best bet then is to have a good reason for staying so long in the Netherlands that does not tend to imply that you might want to overstay. But don't fabricate anything, because that is likely to get you banned. What are you going to be doing there for three months? The answer to that question has a direct impact on the answer to your question. If you edit this information into your question, you may well get it reopened, since it should no longer be "too broad." – phoog Nov 13 '16 at 17:38
  • @phoog - thank you! that solves it for me, I know what to do. THanks again! – user46068 Nov 13 '16 at 21:11