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Please see this question for full history, but in short: my mother-in law who is a US citizen overstayed her visit to the UK and was asked to leave. She left voluntarily and is now back in the US.

She is applying for the correct visa now, but her old solicitor got in touch to say she might have one year ban. We have checked the paper work she was issued when she left and it does not mention a ban.

Would she have a one year ban automatically, and how can we find out? Is the solicitor just trying to get her to start using him again?

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    I don't think the UK would have given her paperwork without mentioning a ban if she were given a ban. But your previous question seems to have omitted the second page of the refusal notice which is, IIRC, where bans are generally mentioned. – phoog Sep 26 '16 at 17:48
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    The solicitor wouldn't have been among those listed in your previous answer, I take it you did not contact one of them. And bans are not 'automatic', they occur at the application stage and are documented in writing. – Gayot Fow Sep 26 '16 at 19:19
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Would she have a one year ban automatically, and how can we find out? Is the solicitor just trying to get her to start using him again?

For that kind of situation, your mother-in-law would have had received a paper saying explicitly that she was banned.

Since she left voluntarily, they might have just gave her a warning which is not stored in the system's database.

In other words, there should not be any problem for getting the proper visa but she might have to give strong proof that she will not remain in the UK after her visa expires. It is like showing she has property in the USA, or matter of affairs she needs to deal in the near future in the USA, or anything that states she would have to go back to the USA.

Just as with any kind of visa, embassies don't want to risk, and might refuse her visa request if they think she will overstay in the UK again.

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