I have lost out on my holiday to Spain because my British visa would not have had 90 days remaining beyond my return to the UK. Therefore, I could not apply for a Schengen visa (or so I was told) and missed out on my holiday. I did not realize this rule was in place.

Why does my British visa affect a Schengen visa? I am not in a danger category whatsoever, being married to a British born and bred, and permanently living in the UK.

closed as primarily opinion-based by pnuts, mts, Willeke, Giorgio, Ali Awan Nov 13 '16 at 2:15

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    What's your nationality? Also, I'm having a little difficulty reconciling "permanently living in the UK" with "my British visa would not have had 90 days remaining". What is your current status in the UK? – MadHatter Sep 11 '16 at 10:40
  • To MadHatter: Ukrainian on a spouse visa. They require that – Funtik Sep 11 '16 at 13:23
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    @JoeBlow that might have been the case once, but these days getting a spouse into the UK is not that easy. There are both time and financial barriers to getting people to permanent settlement status, let alone citizenship. Hence Surinder Singh route, etc. – nkjt Sep 11 '16 at 16:06
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    @JoeBlow, the era of easy spouse immigration ended about 27 years ago. Do try to keep up :) – Gayot Fow Sep 11 '16 at 17:18
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    @Funtik it's about returnability. They require a valid visa extending 90 days beyond the departure from Schengen. – Gayot Fow Sep 11 '16 at 17:20