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I have a 6 month multiple entry visa issued by Netherlands, i've already completed my first trip to Netherlands(which was 5 days) and now i want to go Spain for 2 weeks, would it be violation of schengen rules to use visa that way? Edit: My concern is that in result by the end of the visa i will be spending more time in Spain than in Netherlands, is it okay?

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No, since you have a multiple entry schengen.

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  • My concern is that in result by the end of the visa i will be spending more time in Spain than in Netherlands, is it okay?
    – Goldseeker
    Aug 15, 2016 at 10:19
  • Yes, it's okay. I had a similar situation, my schengen visa was issued by Italy and later I used it to go to France for more days, than I spent in Italy.
    – airbear
    Aug 15, 2016 at 10:21
  • Given that the SP asks both 'would it be a violation?' and 'is it OK?' you might want to clarify 'no'.
    – DJClayworth
    Aug 15, 2016 at 14:24
  • To be fair @airbear responded before i've edited my post to include clarification
    – Goldseeker
    Aug 15, 2016 at 14:56

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