3

This question already has an answer here:

I already have a Schengen visa. Initially my plan was to spend the whole period in the country already applied for -Spain-, and my flight itinerary was inbound and outbound from Spain accordingly.

Due to some changes in plan, my point of entry seems to have to change to Germany instead (where I will spend about 5 nights), then I will make my way down to Spain (staying for around 30 days) until I leave back home.

Would that be acceptable, or is it in anyway penalized?

Please note, the question isn't about being penalized for entering from a country other than which issued the Visa, but rather to not-follow/change the itinerary plans already submitted under which the Schengen Visa was initially granted.

I have already emailed the embassy about the change in plans and awaiting the reply (24-48 hours), but it would great to get an insight from fellow travelers.

marked as duplicate by JonathanReez, mts, JoErNanO, David Richerby, Gayot Fow visas Jun 23 '16 at 2:31

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • 6
    Should be OK, although you might face additional scrutiny at the border. Note that exiting (instead of entering) through Germany would be easier, even if it does not make any difference legally speaking. See also travel.stackexchange.com/questions/13362/… – Relaxed Jun 22 '16 at 11:55
-1

please be informed that you cannot have layover in two schengen countries

  • 8
    This is not true. It is true if you add the condition of needing a Schengen visa but not having one, but that's not relevant to this question. Anyone who holds a Schengen visa or comes from a country whose nationals don't need one, however, can have as many Schengen transits as they like. – phoog Jun 22 '16 at 14:13

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.