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According to Glen Brown, “One of the greatest things about Andorra is that the country is outside the EU and this is why you get duty free. This means when you need to do your 90 days out of the Schengen zone you can do those 90 days in Andorra if you wanted too and then slip back into the Schengen zone for another 90 days again.”

I am suspicious that there is some detail that Mr. Brown has overlooked.  I read elsewhere that Andorra had agreements with both Spain and France to not let in anyone who isn’t legally authorized to be in those countries. I’ve also read a claim that Andorra allows a tourist 183 days and another saying it is only ninety.  An actual residence permit has a set of financial requirements much higher than that of Spain.

Would it actually be legal to alternate between Andorra and France or Spain?

If Andorra limits one to ninety days, and measures it the same way Schengen does, then I think it wouldn’t work, because the day you cross the border counts for both.

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Would it actually be legal to alternate between Andorra and France or Spain?

Yes, on condition that when entering Andorra you have a Schengen Area exit stamp and when leaving Andorra have a Schengen Area entry stamp.

As far as the Schengen Border Code, is concerned, it is the proper entry/exit stamps that counts (assuming you don't require a visa) for short term stays.

Without the entry/exit stamps you are assumed to have overstayed (Article 12 (1,4)), unless you can prove otherwise (Article 12 (2)).


Schengen Border Code
Article 12
Presumption as regards fulfilment of conditions of duration of stay
(1) If the travel document of a third-country national does not bear an entry stamp, the competent national authorities may presume that the holder does not fulfil, or no longer fulfils, the conditions of duration of stay applicable within the Member State concerned.
(2) The presumption referred to in paragraph 1 may be rebutted where the third-country national provides, by any means, credible evidence, such as transport tickets or proof of his or her presence outside the territory of the Member States, that he or she has respected the conditions relating to the duration of a short stay.
...
(4) The relevant provisions of paragraphs 1 and 2 shall apply mutatis mutandis in the absence of an exit stamp.


Sources:

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  • I edited a caveat into the question that might be an obstacle. Ninety days each might still be a Schengen problem because each transfer day counts for both.
    – WGroleau
    Aug 12 at 0:44
  • @WGroleau There is no reason to believe that that is the case (without an Andorian law source hard to say for sure). With Romania and Bulgaria it is not the case. Aug 12 at 0:50
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    @WGroleau Physical presence IS officially the deciding factor: says who? What is your source? I have added the relavent portions of the Schengen Border Code Article 12 that states the exact opposite. Aug 12 at 6:12
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    It says "may presume …" Presume what? Physical presence. And then it offers the option of proving that presence in other ways. Which is exactly what I did when Spain falsely claimed I had been in Schengen fifteen months. (Ironically, I later realized that the exit stamp they had missed was completely legible.)
    – WGroleau
    Aug 12 at 16:48
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    @MarkJohnson Regarding Article 12: If you had read and understood what you are quoting instead of emphasizing sentence fragments, which alone and taken out of context are meaningless, you wuld have realized that WGroleau is right. Without stamps, the authorities 'may presume' that the conditions for stay are not fulfilled, but the traveller can 'by any means' prove that he has been outside the Schengen area even if stamps are missing. Aug 12 at 17:35

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