I have a long term visa of Czech Republic valid from 24 November. Is it alright to board a flight from India to Czech Republic, at say 1 am of 24 November in the Indian time (but still late night of 23 November in my visa country), but which reaches my connection in France (CDG) on 24th November when my visa is valid and thereafter it reaches Prague when my visa is again valid.

  • 2
    I guess this question is effectively asking whether dates in travel documents should refer to the time-zone in which they were written, or the time-zone in which they're used?
    – gidds
    Oct 1 at 8:47
  • Be aware that unexpected things might happen. For example, the person checking your documents at departure might not be sure of which time zone is to be applied, and might deny you boarding just to be safe (from the airline POV). Even if you were right and he was wrong, it would be you the one who would be denied boarding.
    – SJuan76
    Oct 1 at 10:13
  • OT: You may want to know that if your name is really Kritika, where you're going this word means 'criticism'. Use this fact to have fun with the locals ;-)
    – JohnEye
    Oct 1 at 14:33
  • @gidds That would clarify the legal situation. I have assumed that dates in the visa refer to the timezone of the issuing country. But some countries like US, Russia have multiple timezones. I could be wrong though, in which case visa dates refer to the timezone of the Embassy/ Consulate issuing the visa?
    – Kritika
    Oct 1 at 14:53

Your visa has to be valid when you reach a country that requires it. Starting your trip before the start date of the visa is not unusual. As long as you do not plan to arrive before the start date you will be fine, and will be able to board your flight.

  • 6
    I'd actually suggest altering again, something like "your visa must be valid when you reach a country where the visa is a requirement for entry". That's not always the country that issued it - as OP's example shows.
    – Chris H
    Oct 1 at 5:27
  • @ChrisH you have a point, but for visa purposes one can usually treat the Schengen area as being one country. Oct 1 at 7:20
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    Also note that arriving at an airport in a country is not the same as entering that country. Entering means you go through border/immigration/customs checks, have your documents and baggage checked. So long as you haven't gone through that process at the airport, you haven't legally entered the country as far as immigration concerns.
    – Xano
    Oct 1 at 8:00
  • @Xano: you should be careful on that (see also a recent question of a person denied boarding). Passing immigration is the official entering, but one enter the country when they land. So one could be arrested, but also one may require a transit visa (also if one doesn't pass any immigration check). Oct 1 at 13:07
  • @Xano You are for most purposes wrong. Take for example a flight from this question. If I fly from France to Prague, I do not go through immigration in Prague. In which country am I according to your logic after leaving the airport? According to your statement, I have not entered Czechia since I did not go through immigration. Am I in no man's land? Or am I perhaps still in France, since I didn't go through immigration there either before boarding the plance? Oct 1 at 13:17

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