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As of June 21st, Spain has reopened its borders for the majority of European countries. On July 1st, it will be open to many more travelers. In articles, it usually says that travel will be open to travelers "from" country X or whose country of origin is country X.

What does this mean? Does it refer to a traveler's country of citizenship? Their place of residence? If it is the latter, does it depend on legal residency status, or a certain time period? For instance, if someone from Brazil cannot travel to Spain, but they have been in Japan for a week (a month? a year?), and people from Japan can enter, would they be able to travel to Spain?

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    Brazilians living in Japan for a year are absolutely no concern for the status of Brazil under Covid-19 emergency
    – usr-local-ΕΨΗΕΛΩΝ
    Commented Jun 22, 2020 at 15:31

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Normally origin means departure.

In practice, it means the government is 1) allowing airlines to operate flights from the listed countries, 2) allowing passenger ships to enter their harbours 2) reopen its land border with France and Portugal.

First, remember that Schengen travels, under normal rules, are domestic at all effect, so no border stop, no systematic inspection, no questioning. If you fly from Finland to Spain, your "origin" is Finland and it is very unlikely to get questions under normal rules.

That said... For the purpose of health controls and disease prevention, it may be also important your RECENT travel history. Once at the external Schengen border, where people are questioned, authorities may ask the traveler for travel history and in particular inspect passports.

In a few words... Your passport/residency is meaningless in the context of disease prevention

  • If you can fly Brazil to Span via a third country, your origin is the third country, unless you are questioned...
  • Once you enter the Schengen Area, police border officers can ask about your last visits, and you will be legally obligated to disclose you are coming from Brazil. Not sure if you can be really denied entry (certainly not if you are EU/EAA), but if you have been to Brazil in the last 14 days, it is likely that you will be subject to quarantine and/or screening.
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  • So, in theory, would this work? The UK still has its borders open, and Spain is open to travellers from the UK. So fly to the UK, isolate for 14 days, then fly to Spain. Would that work?
    – Obie 2.0
    Commented Jun 23, 2020 at 2:29
  • That would be the best idea, not simply "work" from the rules' point ov view. If you isolate yourself for 14 days, it is very unlikely that you will pose a threat to other people's health after that time. That's the point of quarantine/isolation
    – usr-local-ΕΨΗΕΛΩΝ
    Commented Jun 23, 2020 at 10:12
  • Does this answer still apply?
    – Obie 2.0
    Commented Jul 2, 2020 at 8:08
  • In particular, AENA mentions "citizens" (not residents and not people coming from a particular country) on their website.
    – Obie 2.0
    Commented Jul 2, 2020 at 13:22
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    I tested this answer, and it is incorrect.
    – Obie 2.0
    Commented Jul 24, 2020 at 6:11

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