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I am travelling to Spain for business purposes, I have received the covering letter from my firm mentioning that my firm will bear the expenses.

However, my client who is actually bearing the expenses has provided me an invitation letter saying they will be bearing the expenses.

Should I get that rectified on my own firm's covering letter?

Will there be any issue in getting the visa if I submit the two letters as mentioned above? I am applying from India for a visa to Spain.

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  • A natural interpretation would be that the client is paying your employer for the visit and your employer is then paying you. That sounds unremarkable. – hmakholm left over Monica Jun 7 '19 at 14:56
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That's typically governed by the travel policy of your employers. Ask your travel/Hr department or your manager or whoever made the original contract with the client

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