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I am a Turkish citizen.

For a 4 nights trip, I booked two flights: going to Austria and returning back from from Switzerland, visiting only these two. I have no time to acquire visas of these countries as the trip is just next month.

However, I can obtain a German visa with 'business purposes' easily (likely a multiply entry one). It is possible that I will visit Germany later this year, within the duration of the German visa.

Now, would I get in trouble if I just grab the German visa ASAP and use it first to travel Austria and Switzerland?

I might also stay in Germany for a night if that helps. Or book some hotels to pretend my main destination is Germany, and cancel afterwards. But don't want to get into trouble with later during visa applications.

marked as duplicate by Traveller, ThE iLlEgAl aLiEn, Giorgio, David Richerby, o.m. Feb 6 at 17:52

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  • I have done that a few times. It’s against the rules though. – ThE iLlEgAl aLiEn Feb 6 at 12:53
  • @HonoraryWorldCitizen so you didn't encounter any problems? I am thinking what could the worst case be. – Emre Feb 6 at 13:17
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The first use of a multiple-entry Schengen visa should be for the reasons and itinerary that was given in the application. There are examples of denied entry and cancelled visa when people broke this rule.

  • Okay, so I will not take the risk. – Emre Feb 8 at 6:51

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