I am staying in Poland for a conference. Afterwards, I was planning to stay for pleasure. I purchased the tickets and applied for a visa, and got 7 days visa. Yet my tickets were issued from the 7th till the 16th which contradicts and exceeds my stay for over 2 days.

My question is what are the calamities and consequences (if any) if I stayed for extra 2 days even though my visa expires.

enter image description here

  • 3
    The date of entry and departure both count. If you entered on the seventh with seven days' duration of stay, you must leave on or before the 13th. If you stay until the 16th, that is three days extra, not two. – phoog Nov 10 '17 at 18:05
  • @choster, done this for him:) – Suncatcher Nov 11 '17 at 6:27

According to a Polish government page on consequences of illegal stay in the territory of Poland, you may be fined, and you may be banned from Poland or from the entire Schengen area for a period of six months to five years.

Perhaps more significantly, even if you are not fined or banned, you may find that subsequent visa applications are refused because of your history.

If you hope ever to return to the European Union, you should do whatever you can to avoid overstaying.

  • The link that you have provided deals exclusively with what happens after removal proceedings commence. – greatone Nov 10 '17 at 19:09
  • @greatone right, and if you leave after overstaying the authorities may decide to begin removal proceedings, presumably allowing voluntary departure since you're already on your way out, as a way of effecting the ban (and possibly fine), if they are so inclined. – phoog Nov 10 '17 at 19:42
  • It could happen and according to Google, Poland's immigration authorities are rather strict. I wouldn't risk overstaying, but a ban and/or fine is unlikely in this case. – greatone Nov 10 '17 at 19:48
  • @greatone unlikely? Possibly, but note that the traveler has been given a tightly limited visa with only seven days' duration of stay. While the contemplated overstay is only three days, it's also nearly half again as long as the allowed duration. In the current political climate, it seems quite possible that any violation will be dealt with harshly rather than leniently. – phoog Nov 10 '17 at 19:53
  • I agree. He probably won't have any problems now but if his next application is anytime soon, he will have to satisfy the visa officer why he breached the terms of his visa. – greatone Nov 10 '17 at 19:58

Consequences? You will be banned from Schengen for an uncertain period of time and will have trouble getting another visa to Australia/USA/Canada/UK/Schengen for perhaps the rest of your life. It's harsh but it is what it is. There are no sources for this because noone will admit that answering yes to one of the variants of "have you had visa trouble before" means almost automatic refusal.

  • That's not true. A previous refusal or immigration problem does not necessarily mean that there will problems in the future. Yes, the application may be scrutinized more carefully, but as long as you meet the rules of the said country, you should get the visa. Also, most countries (such as the USA or Schengen countries) don't explicitly ask you if you have had immigration problems in other countries. Apart from the FCC countries (limited access), the USA has no access to immigration databases of others. – greatone Nov 10 '17 at 18:30
  • you should but you won't. – chx Nov 10 '17 at 18:37
  • personal experience suggests otherwise. Family-friends have had UK visit visas refused multiple time yet they have subsequently obtained 10 year visas for the USA, Canada as well as many other countries. Visa officers in most countries (like the UK) have to justify their reason (based on their own visa rules) for refusal. They simply can't say: the USA refused your visa and therefore you aren't eligible to travel to the UK. – greatone Nov 10 '17 at 19:05
  • 2
    @greatone but your personal experience may not be relevant. Visa officers can be rather capricious and cite rather vague reasons for refusals (for example, in Schengen and US visa refusals, they can basically just say "you failed to convince us that you don't intend to immigrate illegally" without explaining why they came to that conclusion). Sure, it's possible to get a visa after a refusal or overstay, but one should expect that it will generally be difficult. Also an overstay is worse than a refusal because it indicates a willingness to flout immigration rules. – phoog Nov 10 '17 at 19:48
  • @phoog from the UK ECO guidance: You must check the applicant’s travel.. gov.uk/government/uploads/system/uploads/attachment_data/file/… It does mention depending on the circumstances that a breach of immigration rules in another country may indicate that the applicant is not a genuine visitor. However, that isn't the only consideration. In the OP's case, while a 2-day overstay would be detrimental to his future applications, I don't see how it demonstrates an intention to immigrate. They have to judge intentions, not a breach of others' rules. – greatone Nov 10 '17 at 19:55

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.