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I purchased a flight from Brazil to Spain, with stopover in Morocco. My intention is to fly to Morocco and not take the second leg to Spain. I do not need a visa to Morocco but I need a Schengen Visa to enter Spain. Will I be allowed to board the first leg (Brazil->Morocco)?

Thanks.

marked as duplicate by Dmitry Grigoryev, Ali Awan, Thorsten S., Giorgio, Michael Sep 15 '17 at 20:10

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  • 9
    You could be lucky, it happens, but you should expect to be denied boarding. – Calchas Sep 14 '17 at 22:35
  • 18
    You are trying to have the airline assist you in "hidden city ticketing". That won't end well at all. – Moo Sep 14 '17 at 22:36
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    These hidden-city fares and the airlines' war on them just create problems all over the board. They'd all go away if the gov't decreed "you cannot charge less for ABC than you charge for AB". Or at least bless it so the airlines can't punish you... – Harper Sep 15 '17 at 5:50
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    I'm with @Harper. If "hidden city ticketing" is a thing, it's only because the airlines allow it to be a thing in the first place by pricing unreasonably. They get no sympathy from me on this. – aroth Sep 15 '17 at 11:16
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    When you disembark in Morocco, they will tie you to a camel and drive it out into the desert. – Lemuel Gulliver Sep 15 '17 at 14:21
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No. The airline will not give you a boarding pass for your first flight unless you have the documents you require to enter your final destination.

(Furthermore, if you tell them that you have no intention of flying to Spain, they'll cancel your ticket.)

(Furthermore, if your ticket is a round-trip ticket, when you fail to fly the Morocco-to-Spain leg, they will cancel all remaining legs of your ticket, and you'll have to buy a new ticket if you intend to return to Brazil.)

1

Probably not but I have boarded domestic flights without any attempt to verify that I was legal to fly the second leg.

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