I purchased a flight from Brazil to Spain, with stopover in Morocco. My intention is to fly to Morocco and not take the second leg to Spain. I do not need a visa to Morocco but I need a Schengen Visa to enter Spain. Will I be allowed to board the first leg (Brazil->Morocco)?


  • 9
    You could be lucky, it happens, but you should expect to be denied boarding.
    – Calchas
    Sep 14, 2017 at 22:35
  • 18
    You are trying to have the airline assist you in "hidden city ticketing". That won't end well at all.
    – user29788
    Sep 14, 2017 at 22:36
  • 2
    These hidden-city fares and the airlines' war on them just create problems all over the board. They'd all go away if the gov't decreed "you cannot charge less for ABC than you charge for AB". Or at least bless it so the airlines can't punish you... Sep 15, 2017 at 5:50
  • 2
    I'm with @Harper. If "hidden city ticketing" is a thing, it's only because the airlines allow it to be a thing in the first place by pricing unreasonably. They get no sympathy from me on this.
    – aroth
    Sep 15, 2017 at 11:16
  • 2
    When you disembark in Morocco, they will tie you to a camel and drive it out into the desert. Sep 15, 2017 at 14:21

2 Answers 2


No. The airline will not give you a boarding pass for your first flight unless you have the documents you require to enter your final destination.

(Furthermore, if you tell them that you have no intention of flying to Spain, they'll cancel your ticket.)

(Furthermore, if your ticket is a round-trip ticket, when you fail to fly the Morocco-to-Spain leg, they will cancel all remaining legs of your ticket, and you'll have to buy a new ticket if you intend to return to Brazil.)


Probably not but I have boarded domestic flights without any attempt to verify that I was legal to fly the second leg.

  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
    – JonathanReez
    Sep 16, 2017 at 22:08

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .